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June 30, 2013

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L. John Bost

L. John Bost

Last week: Why Christianity Is Declining.

On June 27, 2013, the Supreme Court of the United States Issued a rulingGay couple just married declaring the Defense Of Marriage Act, signed into law by President Bill Clinton in 1996, barring the federal government from recognizing same-sex marriages legalized by the states, unconstitutional. This brings the question of homosexual marriage to the forefront again. So I would like to again ponder the Divine rulling on the matter of same-sex marriage. An important question is "What did Jesus teach on the matter of same-sex marriage?
Proponents of gay marriage would answer, "Jesus did not say anything about gay marriage." No, Jesus did not mention homosexual marriage directly . But, did He mention the subject indirectly? If so, then what He says indirectly has as much bearing, and as much authority, as a direct statement on the matter.
In Matthew 19:3-9 , Jesus was confronted by a group of Pharisees who tested Him, asking whether it was lawful for a man to divorce his wife for every cause. He answered them with a question (Verses 4-5):
Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
Jesus conclusion, based upon this statement by God upon the creation of the woman for man in Genesis 2:22-24, is, "Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder" (Verse 6). Now please continue your reading through verses 7-9. Here, Jesus declares that there is only one acceptable reason for divorce: the fornication of the spouse being divorced.
What does all of this have to do with homosexual marriage? Again notice that Jesus makes reference to God creating a woman for for the man. He continues by quoting God's statement in Genesis 2:24: "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh" [Emphasis mine, LJB]. So, Jesus says that, since God made woman for man, a man should marry a woman! And, by referring back to God's statement on the matter in the beginning, He makes it clear that marriage between a man and a woman was God's plan from the beginning.
Now, lest one argue that this is not the correct interpretation of Jesus' statement, please read Ephesians 5:22-33. Here, Paul states that the husband is the head of the wife, and that she must be subject unto him. Far from stating that the husband should be a selfish, overbearing, tyrant, Paul, three times, tells husbands to love their wives. How much are husbands to love their wives? "even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it" (Verse 25). In verse 28 he says, " So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself". He states it another way in verse 33: "Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even as himself."
Now notice that, in verse 31, Paul quotes God's statement in Genesis 2:24, Couple just married kissing beside car and Jesus' statement in Matthew 19:5: "For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh." Then, in verse 33, he concludes, "Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even as himself; and the wife see that she reverence her husband" [Emphasis mine]. By Paul's statements here, we can be sure that Jesus was pointing out in Matthew 19 that marriage is to be between a man and a woman.
So Jesus does not specifically mention homosexual marriage, nor specifically condemn it. However, by clearly pointing out that, in His mind, and God's mind, marriage is between one man and one woman, he implicitly condemns homosexual marriage!
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